john 8:58 hebrew

(Because of this, Trinitarians often refer to this as 'proof' that Jesus is the Hebrew GOD of the O.T.) Strong’s Talking Greek & Hebrew Dictionary. Let’s now address the issue of reference to the Divine Name. In the fourth quote, he seems to refer to the Jews' disbelief that Jesus had a pre-human existence. Search a pre-defined list OR Select a range of biblical books. Compare John 8:58 in other Bible versions. Books of the Bible. It signifies unchangeable essence and everlasting duration. NAS 58 Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." The New Testament, by G. R. > Noyes. When, therefore, a preacher calls attention to the fact that the expression ego eimi is found in both Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58, with the same design in both passages, i.e., a declaration of the eternal self-existence of deity, he has not erred. Parallel Bible. NIV 58 “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” John 8:58 Yeshua said to them, "Most assuredly, I tell you, before Avraham came into existence, I AM." The LXX also has it in the present tense which is what the Greek syntax states. John 8:58. In the third quote, he seems to emphasize the meaning of John 8:58 as Jesus existing before Abraham, and not as Jesus claiming God's name. The sections of this article are: 1- The text of John 8:58. John 8:58. $3.99 a month puts a library of commentaries, study notes, and Greek & Hebrew language tools right in your pocket. John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. John 8:58's deliberate mistranslation of Jesus saying "I AM" with new evidence from the Greek language! Some say that the words “I AM” is the divine name of God of which Jesus attributed to himself. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John > 8:58: > > 1869: "From before Abraham was, I have been." their Scriptures were translated into Greek. KJV NKJV NLT NIV ESV CSB NASB. One can make the argument that YHWH did say “I Am” in Exodus 3:14 but this Hebrew translation is also debatable. Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.” The Greek He uses is not an untranslatable phrase anymore than the Hebrew phrase He quotes is, so that it would be equally obfuscatory to render this "I am" of our Lord as ego eimi (the Greek for "I am"). & Transliteration: eimi. The translation was done around 270 B.C. Strong's Number H858 matches the Hebrew ... Search verses, phrases, and topics (e.g. Read verse in Hebrew Names Version Exodus 6:3 English Standard Version (ESV). > > 1965: "Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am." Advanced Bible Search. 3 I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name the Lord I did not make myself fully known to them. John 8:58 is one of the favorite scriptures that Trinitarians try to use to prove that Jesus is God. Many references given from the Old Testament in the New Testament are excerpt from the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible: the Septuagint. Most Bibles translate the Hebrew from Exodus 3:14 as "I am"--the present tense as did the Hebrew translators of the LXX. Verses 8:3, 4, 5. NET RSV ASV YLT DBY WEB HNV. Exodus 6:2-3. They say that Jesus is claiming to be the great "I Am," which is supposedly the name God applied to himself in Exodus 3:14. But how do we compare the words of John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14? While the Greek phrase in John does mean "I am," the Hebrew phrase in Exodus actually means "to be" or "to become." Posted by Elijah Daniels at 8:00 AM. Help Quick Nav Advanced Options. And he said, "Say this to the people of Israel, 'I AM has sent me to you.'" Ask a question about John 8:58… He is referring to himself from the Old Testament speaking to Moses: Exodus 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I … The Far Side 9,173 views. Now the humble Nazarene openly assumes and claims it. 3 The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in adulteryThey made her stand before the group 4 and said to Jesus, “Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery. This translation was the work of eminent Jewish scholars and was to be used by the Jewish, Greek speaking, Diaspora. Yet, this is not carried forth in John 8:58. This post is not an in-depth discussion of John 8:58. 2- The Greek text of John 8:58. Literally, this is "I am the being one." In John 8:58, Jesus does apply the meaning of this Name to Himself when He says, "Before Abraham came into existence, I am"), thus clearly identifying Himself as God. It is important to note that in John 8:58 the word "am" or "εἰμί" is not capitalized in the phrase "I am" in the original manuscripts. And Ex. However, the two statements are very different. 8 1 but Jesus went to the Mount of Olives. Summary on John 8:58 Jesus claimed to be the existing One in present time before Abraham came into being in the past. From: To: OR Custom Selection: Use semicolons to … 3 I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as God Almighty, [] but by my name the Lord I did not make myself known to them. Jesus uses the present tense in John 8:58. John 3:16, Jesus faith love) KJV. English Words used in KJV: I am + 74 am 55 it is I + 6 be 2 I was + 1 have been 1 not tr 7 Strong’s Talking Greek & Hebrew Dictionary. Explaining the Inner Meaning of John 8 Verses 8:1, 2. (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses) Why it is Highly Probable That the Hebrew Word 'Ehyeh' is Mistranslated as "I AM" at Exodus 3:14 (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)----- BACK TO HOME PAGE INDEX. John 8:58. John 8:58 may echo Exodus 3:14 either based on the Hebrew text or the LXX. Exodus 5 Exodus 7 Exodus 6:2-3 New International Version (NIV) 2 God also said to Moses, “I am the Lord. John 8:58. It’s interesting to note, however, that the translators chose “I am” only in John 8.58. As far as Hebrew translations of the New Testament, the link you gave references Franz Delitzsch’s translation as its source. FIRST: “I AM” Is Not A Name. Online Parallel Study Bible. Reflect on God’s comfort and learn a new Hebrew word each day with this new devotional series. However, in about the third century B.C. If we read the New Testament in the original Greek, we would find that quotes from the Old Testament are also in Greek. He is quite within the framework of respectable biblical interpretation. ABP_Strongs 58 G2036 [2 said G1473 3 to them G3588 G* 1 Jesus], G281 Amen, G281 amen, G3004 I say G1473 to you, G4250 Before G* Abraham G1096 existed G1473 I G1510.2.1 am. In order for the Trinitarian argument that Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 makes him God, his statement must be equivalent with God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14. John 8:58 Cross References - ABP_Strongs . 3:14 this way: "God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM." John 8:58 - εἶπεν αὐτοῖς ἰησοῦς, ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν... - Jesus said to them, Not once did Athanasius attempt to connect John 8:58 with Exodus 3:14. Bible translation and John 8:58. This is the famous passage in which Moses asked God his name, to which God replied: “I AM WHO I AM.” (NRSV) Of course, this text was originally written in Hebrew. Study This. (2 At dawn he appeared again in the temple courts, where all the people gathered around him, and he sat down to teach them. (i)- Jesus also was the heir who will inherit the earth. John 8:58 - The Translation “I Am” is Verbal Nonsense and Grammatically Erroneous (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses) John 8:58 - Did Jesus Really Say, "I AM"? Silently they had read it, used another in its stead, revered and adored it. Finally as in John 8:58 and, as double entendre is most commonly used, it implied a second meaning without actually stating it. Take a look at the Hebrew text here: The same Hebrew word (1961) is used 2 scriptures apart (right beside the 12 and the 14), but it is translated differently in v.14, in order to prop Jesus' claim to Jehovahhood. John 8:58 - Verses used to Support the Doctrine of the Trinity - Duration: ... -The Secret Name of Jesus - (Hidden Code- Hebrew Ideograms) - Duration: 4:44. That the Lord elevated himself into his divine love, and filling his humanity with that love, he excites mutual love in the church, and from that love imparts heavenly truth. Jesus claimed uncreated, continuous existence in contrast to the coming into being of Abraham. (a)- Jesus was the foretold Messiah and the greatest and final Jewish Prophet. This was also Jesus’ reason for using parables (Luke 8:10). and was used and known in Jesus’ time. John 8:58 “Before Abraham was, ... longer spoke Hebrew in daily life, but Aramaic, although at that time they still read their Scriptures in the Hebrew original. Jesus was likely speaking in Hebrew in the actual story and John may have chosen to use the LXX rendering of EHYEH in its first occurrence in Exodus 3:14 as ego eimi. - John 8:58, NIV and most others. Here the Saviour claims with a double “Amen” the Incommunicable Name (Exodus 3:14). The Bible-An American Translation, > by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed. Clear Advanced Options. Thus Jesus answered the question of the Jews about His greatness in comparison to Abraham and how His words are able to sustain life. Question#1: Dear Dr. Luginbill, I'm in an argument with a [member of an anti-Trinitarian sect] over John 8:58.He says "I have been" is a perfectly good rendering (instead of "before Abraham was born, I AM"). John 8:58 - NWT . KJV Errors: Hebrew Masoretic vs Greek Septuagint - Duration: 15:09. The expression is a Hebrew idiom and is used to express a non-terminated existence, i.e., the existence that Jesus as the Logos had before Abraham lived had never up to the time of His speaking in this text come to an end.” — page 45. This is the name which the Jews for centuries had not dared to utter. to report Jesus' words to the Jews in John 8:58. 15:09. Quite easily in fact. The Old Testament was written primarily in Hebrew and the New Testament was written entirely in Greek. Before Abraham was, I am. John 8:58 - Verses used to Support the Doctrine of the Trinity - Duration: 12:06. > > 1935: "I existed before Abraham was born!" RVR60 VUL WLC LXX mGNT TR . 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